In reply to:

I think, but am not certain, that you're missing the point, by examining Bob's incredulity rather than the problem as stated. Let's say your probability that the universe is being simulated is 2^x.

Alice flips a coin (x+1) times. You watch her flip the coins, and she carefully marks down the result of each flip.

No matter what sequence you watch, and she records - that sequence has less likelihood of having occurred naturally than that the universe is simulated, according to your priors. If it helps, imagine that a coin you know to be fair turns up Heads each time. (A sequence of all heads seems particularly unlikely - but every other sequence is equally unlikely.)

I agree that the probability of seeing that exact sequence is low. Not sure why that's a problem, though. For any particular random-looking sequence, Bob's prior P(see this sequence | universe is simulated) is pretty much equal to P(see this sequence | universe is not simulated), so it shouldn't make Bob update.

What's wrong with this picture?

Alice: "I just flipped a coin [large number] times. Here's the sequence I got:

 

(Alice presents her sequence.)

 

Bob: No, you didn't. The probability of having gotten that particular sequence is 1/2^[large number]. Which is basically impossible. I don't believe you.

 

Alice: But I had to get some sequence or other. You'd make the same claim regardless of what sequence I showed you.

 

Bob: True. But am I really supposed to believe you that a 1/2^[large number] event happened, just because you tell me it did, or because you showed me a video of it happening, or even if I watched it happen with my own eyes? My observations are always fallible, and if you make an event improbable enough, why shouldn't I be skeptical even if I think I observed it?

 

Alice: Someone usually wins the lottery. Should the person who finds out that their ticket had the winning numbers believe the opposite, because winning is so improbable?

 

Bob: What's the difference between finding out you've won the lottery and finding out that your neighbor is a 500 year old vampire, or that your house is haunted by real ghosts? All of these events are extremely improbable given what we know of the world.

 

Alice: There's improbable, and then there's impossible. 500 year old vampires and ghosts don't exist.

 

Bob: As far as you know. And I bet more people claim to have seen ghosts than have won more than 100 million dollars in the lottery.

 

Alice: I still think there's something wrong with your reasoning here.

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The reason why Bob should be much more skeptical when Alice says "I just got HHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH" than when she says "I just got HTHHTHHTTHTTHTHHHH" is that there are specific other highish-probability hypotheses that explain Alice's first claim, and there aren't for her second. (Unless, e.g., it turns out that Alice had previously made a bet with someone else that she would get HTHHTHHTTHTTHTHHHH, at which point we should suddenly get more skeptical again.)

Bob's perfectly within his rights to be skeptical, of course, and if the number of coin flips is large enough then even a perfectly honest Alice is quite likely to have made at least one error. But he isn't entitled to say, e.g., that Pr(Alice actually got HTHHTHHTTHTTHTHHHH | Alice said she got HTHHTHHTTHTTHTHHHH) = Pr(Alice actually got HTHHTHHTTHTTHTHHHH) = 2^-20 because Alice's testimony provides non-negligible evidence, because empirically when people report things they have no particular reason to get wrong they're quite often right.

(But, again: if Bob learns that Alice had a specific reason to want it thought she got that exact sequence of flips, he should get more skeptical again.)

So, now suppose Alice says "I just won the lottery" and Amanda says "I just saw a ghost". What should Bob's probability estimates be in the two cases?

Empirically, so far as I can tell, a good fraction of people who claim to have won the lottery actually did so. Of course people sometimes lie, but you have to weigh "most people don't win the lottery on any given occasion" against "most people don't falsely claim to have won the lottery on any given occasion". I guess Bob's posterior Pr(Alice won the lottery) should be somewhere in the vicinity of 1/2. Enough to be decently convinced by a modest amount of further evidence, unless some other hypothesis -- e.g., Alice is trying to scam him somehow, or she's being seriously hoaxed -- gets enough evidence to be taken seriously (e.g., Alice, having allegedly won the lottery, asks Bob for a loan to be repaid with exorbitant interest).

On the other hand, there are lots and lots of tales of ghosts and (at best) very few well verified ones. It looks as if many people who claim to have seen ghosts probably haven't. Further, there are reasons to think it very unlikely that there are ghosts at all (e.g., it seems clear that human thinking is done by human brains, and by definition a ghost's brain is no longer functioning) and those reasons seem quite robust -- they aren't, e.g., dependent on details of our current theories of quantum physics or evolutionary biology. So we should set Pr(ghosts are real) extremely small, and Pr(Amanda reports a ghost | Amanda hasn't really seen a ghost) not terribly small, which means Pr(Amanda has seen a ghost | Amanda reports a ghost) is still small.

Bob's last comparison (claims of seeing ghosts, against actual wins of big lottery prizes) is of course nonsensical, and as long as one of it's of the form "more claims of ghosts than X" it actually goes the wrong way for his purposes. What he wants is more actual sightings of ghosts and fewer claims of ghosts.

I don't see the paradox. P(Alice saw this sequence) is low, and P(Alice presented this sequence) is low, but P(Alice saw this sequence | Alice presented this sequence) is high, so Bob has no reason to be incredulous.

I think, but am not certain, that you're missing the point, by examining Bob's incredulity rather than the problem as stated. Let's say your probability that the universe is being simulated is 2^x.

Alice flips a coin (x+1) times. You watch her flip the coins, and she carefully marks down the result of each flip.

No matter what sequence you watch, and she records - that sequence has less likelihood of having occurred naturally than that the universe is simulated, according to your priors. If it helps, imagine that a coin you know to be fair turns up Heads each time. (A sequence of all heads seems particularly unlikely - but every other sequence is equally unlikely.)

I agree that the probability of seeing that exact sequence is low. Not sure why that's a problem, though. For any particular random-looking sequence, Bob's prior P(see this sequence | universe is simulated) is pretty much equal to P(see this sequence | universe is not simulated), so it shouldn't make Bob update.

My response is here, a post on my blog from last August.

Basically when Bob sees Alice present the particular sequence, he is seeing something extremely improbable, namely that she would present that individual sequence. So he is seeing extremely improbable evidence which strongly favors the hypothesis that something extremely improbable occurred. He should update on that evidence by concluding that it probably did occur.

Regarding the lottery issue, we have the same situation. If you play the lottery, see the numbers announced, and go, "I just won the lottery!" you are indeed probably wrong. Look again. In most cases you will see that the numbers don't quite match. In the few cases where they do match, you are seeing extremely improbable evidence that you won the lottery, namely that your numbers match after repeated comparisons.

I would personally argue that, even given any particular non-fatal objection to the core of this article, there is something interesting to be found here, if one is charitable. I recommend Chapter 2, Section 4 of Nick Bostrom's Anthropic Bias: Observation Selection Effects in Science and Philosophy, and the citations therein, for further reading. There also might be more recent work on this problem that I'm unaware of. We might refer to this as defining the distinction between surprising and unsurprising improbable events.

It also seems noteworthy that user:cousin_it has done precisely what Bostrom does in his book: sidesteps the issue by focusing on determining the conditional probability implicit in the problem. (In Bostrom's case, however, it is P(There exists an ensemble of universes | An observer observes a fine-tuned universe)). Perhaps this concentration on conditional probabilities is a reduction of the problem, but it does not seem to cause the confusion to evaporate in a puff of smoke, as we should probably expect.

It is true that sometimes humans systematically happen upon wrong-headed ideas, but it may also be the case that user:CronoDAS and others have converged upon a substantial problem.

Substantial? No - it adds up to normality. Interesting? Yes.

Imagine two situations of equal improbability:

In one, Alice flips a coin N times in front of a crowd, and achieves some specific sequence M.

In the other, Alice flips a coin N / 2 times in front of a crowd, and achieves some specific sequence Q; she then opens an envelope, and reveals a prediction of exactly the sequence that she just flipped.

These two end results are equally improbable (both end results encode N bits of information - to see this, imagine that the envelope contained a different sequence than she flipped), but we attach significance to one result (appropriately) and not the other. What's the difference between the two situations?

Substantial? No - it adds up to normality. Interesting? Yes.

I don't understand what you mean by this.

Imagine two situations of equal improbability:

In one, Alice flips a coin N times in front of a crowd, and achieves some specific sequence M.

In the other, Alice flips a coin N / 2 times in front of a crowd, and achieves some specific sequence Q; she then >opens an envelope, and reveals a prediction of exactly the sequence that she just flipped.

These two end results are equally improbable (both end results encode N bits of information - to see this, imagine that the envelope contained a different sequence than she flipped), but we attach significance to one result (appropriately) and not the other. What's the difference between the two situations?

It is important to note that to capture this problem entirely we must make it explicit that the person observing the coin flips has not only a distribution over sequences of coin flips, but a distribution over world-models that produce the sequences. It is often implicit, and sometimes explicitly assumed, in coin flipping examples, that a normal human flipping a fair coin is something like our null hypothesis about the world. Most coins seem fair in our everyday experience. Alice correctly predicting the sequence that she achieves is evidence that causes a substantial update on our distribution over world-models, even if the two sequences are assigned equal probability in our distribution over sequences given that the null hypothesis is true.

You can also imagine it as the problem of finding an efficient encoding for sequences of coin flips. If you know that certain subsequences are more likely than others, then you should find a way to encode more probable subsequences with less bits. Actually doing this is equivalent to forming beliefs about the world. (Like 'The coin is biased in this particular way', or 'Alice is clairvoyant.')

I do not think these events are equally improbable (thus, equally probable).

The specific sequence, M, is some sequence in the space of all possible sequences; "... achieves some specific sequence M" is like saying "there exists an M in the space of all sequences such that N = M." That will always be true—that is, one can always retroactively say "Alice's end-result is some specific sequence."

On the other hand, it's a totally different thing to say "Alice's end-result is some specific sequence which she herself picked out before flipping the coin."

All sequences, both written and flipped, are equally improbable. The difference is in treating the cases where the two sequences are identical as logically distinct from all other possible combinations of sequences. They're not nearly as distinct as you might think; imagine if she's off by one. Still pretty improbable, just not -as- improbable. Off by three, a little less probably still. Equivalent using a Caeser Cipher using blocks of 8? Equivalent using a hashing algorithm? Equivalent using a different hashing algorithm?

Which is to say: There is always going to be a relationship that can be found between the predicted sequence and the flipped sequence. Two points make a line, after all.

I agree with you that the probability of Alice's sequence being a sequence will always be the same, but the reason Alice's correct prediction is a difference in the two mentioned situations is because the probability of her randomly guessing correctly is so low—and may indicate something about Alice and her actions (that is, given a complete set of information regarding Alice, the probability of her correctly guessing the sequence of coin flips might be much higher).

Am I misunderstanding the point you're making w/ this example?

Which seems more unlikely: The sequences exactly matching, or the envelope sequence, converted to a number, being exactly 1649271 plus the flipped sequence converted to a number?

They're equally likely, but, unless Alice chose 1649271 specifically, I'm not quite sure what that question is supposed to show me, or how it relates to what I mentioned above.

Maybe let me put it this way: We play a dice game; if I roll 3, I win some of your money. If you roll an even number, you win some of my money. Whenever I roll, I roll a 3, always. Do you keep playing (because my chances of rolling 3-3-3-3-3-3 are exactly the same as my chances of rolling 1-3-4-2-5-6, or any other specific 6-numbered sequence) or do you quit?

I have seen this argument on LessWrong before, and don't think the other explanations are as clear as they can be. They are correct though, so my apologies if this just clutters up the thread.

The Bayesian way of looking at this is clear: the prior probability of any particular sequence is 1/2^[large number]. Alice sees this sequence and reports it to Bob. Presumably Alice intends on telling Bob the truth about what she saw, so let's say that there's a 90% chance that she will not make a mistake during the reporting. The other 10% will cover all cases ranging from misremembering/misreading a flip to outright lying. The point is that if Alice is lying, this 10% has to be divided up between the other 2^[large number]-1 other possible sequences - if Alice is going to lie, any particular sequence is very unlikely to be presented by her as the true sequence, since there are a lot of ways for her to lie. So, assuming that Alice was intending to speak the truth, her giving that sequence is very strong (in my example 9*(2^[large number]-1):1) evidence that that particular sequence was indeed the true one over any specific other sequence - 'coincidentally' precisely strong enough to turn the posterior belief of Bob that that sequence is correct to 90%.

A fun side remark is that the above also clearly shows why Bob should be more skeptical when Alice presents sequences like HHHHHHHHHH or HTHTHTHTHTHT - if Alice were planning on lying these are exactly the sequences that she might pick with a greater than uniform probabilty out of all the sequences that were not thrown, and therefore each possible actual sequence contributes a higher-than-average amount of probability that Alice would present one of these special sequences, so the fact that Alice informs Bob of such a sequence is weaker evidence for this particular sequence over any other one than it would be in the regular case, and Bob ends up with a lower posterior that the sequence is actually correct.

Nothing is wrong with this picture -- it's just Bob trolling Alice :-)

Suppose Alice and Bob are the same person. Alice tosses a coin a large number of times and records the results.

Should she disbelieve what she reads?