Why is the A-Theory of Time Attractive?

I've always been puzzled by why so many people have such strong intuitions about whether the A-theory or the B-theory1 of time is true.  [ETA: I've written "A-theory" and "B-theory" as code for "presentism" and "eternalism", but see the first footnote.]  It seems like nothing psychologically important turns on this question.  And yet, people often have a very strong intuition supporting one theory over the other.  Moreover, this intuition seems to be remarkably primitive.  That is, whichever theory you prefer, you probably felt an immediate affinity for that conception of time as soon as you started thinking about time at all.  The intuition that time is A-theoretic or B-theoretic seems pre-philosophical, whichever intuition you have.  This intuition will then shape your subsequent theoretical speculations about time, rather than vice-verse.

Consider, by way of contrast, intuitions about God.  People often have a strong pre-theoretical intuition about whether God exists.  But it is easy to imagine how someone could form a strong emotional attachment to the existence of God early in life.  Can emotional significance explain why people have deeply felt intuitions about time?  It seems like the nature of time should be emotionally neutral2.

Now, strong intuitions about emotionally neutral topics aren't so uncommon.  For example, we have strong intuitions about how addition behaves for large integers.  But usually, it seems, such intuitions are nearly unanimous and can be attributed to our common biological or cultural heritage.  Strong disagreeing intuitions about neutral topics seem rarer.

Speaking for myself, the B-theory has always seemed just obviously true.  I can't really make coherent sense out of the A-theory.  If I had never encountered the A-theory, the idea that time might work like that would not have occurred to me.  Nonetheless, at the risk of being rude, I am going to speculate about how A-theorists got that way.  (B-theorists, of course, just follow the evidence ;).)

I wonder if the real psycho-philosophical root of the A-theory is the following. If you feel strongly committed to the A-theory, maybe you are being pushed into that position by two conflicting intuitions about your own personal identity.

Intuition 1: On the one hand, you have a notion of personal identity according to which you are just whatever is accessible to your self-awareness right now, plus maybe whatever metaphysical "supporting machinery" allows you to have this kind of self-awareness.

Intuition 2: On the other hand, you feel that you must identify yourself, in some sense, with you-tomorrow.  Otherwise, you can give no "rational" account of the particular way in which you care about and feel responsible for this particular tomorrow-person, as opposed to Brittany-Spears-tomorrow, say.

But now you have a problem.  It seems that if you take this second intuition seriously, then the first intuition implies that the experiences of you-tomorrow should be accessible to you-now.  Obviously, this is not the case.  You-tomorrow will have some particular contents of self-awareness, but those contents aren't accessible to you-now.  Indeed, entirely different contents completely fill your awareness now — contents which will not be accessible in this direct and immediate way to you-tomorrow.

So, to hold onto both intuitions, you must somehow block the inference made in the previous paragraph.  One way to do this is to go through the following sequence:

  1. Take the first intuition on board without reservation.
  2. Take the second intuition on board in a modified way: "identify" you-now with you-tomorrow, but don't stop there.  If you left things at this point, the relationship of "identity" would entail a conduit through which all of your tomorrow-awareness should explode into your now, overlaying or crowding out your now-awareness.  You must somehow forestall this inference, so...
  3. Deny that you-tomorrow exists!  At least, deny that it exists in the full sense of the word.  Thus, metaphorically, you put up a "veil of nonexistence" between you-tomorrow and you-now.  This veil of nonexistence explains the absence of the tomorrow-awareness from your present awareness. The tomorrow-awareness is absent because it simply doesn't exist!  (—yet!)  Thus, in step (2), you may safely identify you-now with you-tomorrow.  You can go ahead and open that conduit to the future, without any fear of what would pour through into the now, because there simply is nothing on the other side.

One potential problem with this psychological explanation is that it doesn't explain the significance of "becoming".  Some A-theorists report that a particular basic experience of "becoming" is the immediate reason for their attachment to the A-theory.  But the story above doesn't really have anything to do with "becoming", at least not obviously.  (This is because I can't make heads or tails of "becoming".)

Second, intuitions about time, even in their primitive pre-reflective state, are intuitions about everything in time.  Yet the story above is exclusively about oneself in time.  It seems that it would require something more to pass from intuitions about oneself in time to intuitions about how the entire universe is in time.


 

1 [ETA: In this post, I use the words "A-theory" and "B-theory" as a sloppy shorthand for "presentism" and "eternalism", respectively.  The point is that these are theories of ontology ("Does the future exist?"), and not just theories about how we should talk about time.  This shouldn't seem like merely a semantic or vacuous dispute unless, as in certain caricatures of logical positivism, you think that the question of whether X exists is always just the question of whether X can be directly experienced.]

2 Some people do seem to be attached to the A-theory because they think that the B-theory takes away their free will by implying that what they will choose is already the case right now.  This might explain the emotional significance of the A-theory of time for some people.  But many A-theorists are happy to grant, say, that God already knows what they will do.  I'm trying to understand those A-theorists who aren't bothered by the implications of the B-theory for free will.

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I feel like this is just a really obnoxious argument about definitions.

I especially feel like this is a really obnoxious argument about definitions when the wiki article quotes things like:

"Take the supposed illusion of change. This must mean that something, X, appears to change when in fact it does not change at all. That may be true about X; but how could the illusion occur unless there were change somewhere? If there is no change in X, there must be a change in the deluded mind that contemplates X. The illusion of change is actually a changing illusion. Thus the illusion of change implies the reality of some change. Change, therefore, is invincible in its stubbornness; for no one can deny the appearance of change."

So, to taboo a bunch of words, and to try and state my take on the actual issue as I understand it (including some snark):

B theory: Let there be this thing called spacetime which encodes all moments of time (past,present, future) and space (i.e., the universe). The phenomenal experience of existence is akin to tracking a very particular slice of spacetime move along at the speed that time inches forward, as observed by me.

A theory: My mind is the fundamental metaphysical object, and moments of "time" can only be oriented with respect to my immediate phenomenal experience of reality. Trying to say something about a grand catalog of time (including the future) robs me of this phenomenal experience because I know what I'm feeling, and I'm feeling the phenomenal experience of existing right now, dammit! Point to that on your fancy spacetime chart!

Read this way, I suppose the most succinct objection of the A-theorist is: "If all of spacetime exists, all reference frames are equivalent, etc. etc., why am I, in this moment, existing right now?" To which, I imagine, a B-theorist would respond by saying, "Because you're right here," and would then point to their location on the spacetime chart.

But this isn't actually an argument about what time is like. It's an argument about how whether or not we should privilege the phenomenal experience of existing--of experiencing the now. That is, does me experiencing life right at this moment mean that this moment is special?

I suppose I can see why people that aren't computationalists would be bothered by the B theory, because it does rob you of that special-ness.

After reading your comment, I agree that this is probably just a semantic question with no real meaning. This is interesting, because I completely failed to realize this myself and instead constructed an elaborate rationalization for why the distinction exists.

While reading the wikipedia page, I found myself interpreting meaning into these two viewpoints that were probably never intended to be there. I am mentioning this both because I find it interesting that I reinterpreted both theories to be consistent with my own believes without realizing it, and because I would like to see what others have to say about those reinterpretations. I should point out that I am currently really tired and only skimmed the article, so that probably wouldn't have happened under ordinary circumstances, but I still think that this is interesting because it shows the inferential gap at work:

I am a computationalist, and as such the distinction between the two theories was pretty meaningless to me at first. However, I reinterpreted the two theories in ways that were almost certainly never intended, so that they did make sense to me as a reasonable distinction:

  • the A theory corresponds to living in a universe where the laws of physics progress like in a simple physical simulation, with a global variable to measure time and rules for how to incrementally get from one state to the next. I assume for the purpose of this theory that quantum-mechanical and relativistic effects that view time non-linearly can be abstracted in some way so that a single, universal time value suffices regardless. I interpreted it like this because I thought the crux of the theory was having a central anchor point for past and future.

  • the B theory corresponds to living in a highly abstracted simulation where many things are only computed when they become relevant for whatever the focus of the simulation is on. For instance, say the focus is on accurately modelling sapient life, then the exact atomic composition of a random rock is largely irrelevant and is not computed at first. However, when the rock is analyzed by a scientist, this information does become relevant. The simulation now checks what level of detail is required (i.e. how precise the measuring is) and backpropagates causal chains on how the rock came to be, in order to update the information about the rock's structure. In this way, unnecessary computations are avoided. I interpreted it like this because I thought the crux of the theory was the causal structure between events.

In essence, the A theory would correspond to a mindless, brute-force computation, while the B theory implies a deliberate, efficient computation that follows some explicit goal. This is nowhere near what the A and B theory actually seem to say now that I have read the article in more detail. In fact, the philosophical/moral implications are almost reversed under some viewpoints. I find it very interesting that this is the first thing that came to mind when I read it.

It seems to me that they're both perfectly valid and indeed equivalent. Like a change of basis, though, you will seem to have rearranged everything.

ETA: Actually, this IS a change of basis.

I probably should have used the words "presentism" and "eternalism" instead of "A-theory" and "B-theory". I've added a footnote which I hope clarifies this.

The point is that these are theories about what exists, and not just theories about how we should talk about time. To say that all of time is even "there" to be coordinatized is, in essence, to sign onto the B-theory as opposed to the A-theory.

How is this just a change of basis? To me it seems more like B-theorists have an appropriately coordinate-independent conception of the underlying reality whereas A-theorists are privileging one particular coordinate representation.

In history-of-the-universe space, time-translations are just changes of basis. The difference between A and B is what time you assign to be '0'.

When you're thinking about yourself, it's appropriate to privilege facts pertaining to yourself. Like, if I'm on a roller-coaster, I will do most of my thinking about accelerations in my personal reference frame. This is a stupid reference frame to use for anything else, even for thinking about the person sitting next to me.

I guess the issue is, it's easier to think of a block universe in B-theory-mode?

The A-theory and B-theory perspectives are not related by a time translation.

B-theory says that the only objective temporal facts about events in space-time are relative facts. Given two points X and Y, you can ask questions like "Is X in the future relative to Y?" and "What is the space-time interval separating X and Y?" But B-theorists say that it makes no sense to ask questions like "Is point X in the future?" without at least implicitly relativizing the question to some other space-time point or region.

The A-theorist says that there is an absolute answer to the latter sort of question, and it does not depend on any implicit relativization. It is an objective fact about point X whether it is in the future or not. Not whether it is in the future of point Y, not whether it is in the future of the space-time region in which the question is being asked, but simply and non-relatively whether it is in the future. B-theory recognizes no such absolute property of future-ness or past-ness.

I don't see how this difference can be interpreted as a mere change of basis. I think you are attributing to A-theorists an implicit relativization to the space-time region in which the discussion is taking place; you're assuming that they have simply chosen a reference frame with a zero in that region, and that all their claims about past and future are actually relative to this frame. But A-theorists are explicit that this is not what they mean. They believe that an event is either in the future or not, and that this is a fact that is independent of reference frame, just like whether X is in the causal past of Y is independent of reference frame.

Like I said in another comment, A-theorists propose radically different ontologies for space and time, and it seems you are under-estimating how radically different these ontologies actually are.

I suspect the tendency to favour A over B .or vice versa is related to cognitive styles which favour raw (ish) experience versus cognitive styles which favour theory and detachment.

ETA

Experience favours presentism, because the past and future are not "there" phenomenologically, and changing present moment is.

Theory favours eternalism because it is hard to represent change mathematically ... it gets lost in the translation.

From a constructivist standpoint, I can observe the present, so that's there. Than I can construct based on that the past and the future.

It seems like the nature of time should be emotionally neutral1.

I personally can say that I had a very strong belief that if I awake and the last day I remember is Tuesday it should be Wednesday and not Monday. It was quite a shock to learn that isn't true.

Fundamental beliefs often do come with strong emotions if they are challenged.

Some A-theorists report that a particular basic experience of "becoming" is the immediate reason for their attachment to the A-theory. But the story above doesn't really have anything to do with "becoming", at least not obviously. (This is because I can't make heads or tails of "becoming".)

Experience is a word that refers to qualia. The blind man can't easily make sense of someone speaking about experiencing seeing red.

Different perception can easily lead to different intuitions.

I personally can say that I had a very strong belief that if I awake and the last day I remember is Tuesday it should be Wednesday and not Monday. It was quite a shock to learn that isn't true.

Yes, it can be very distressing to have a strong intuition challenged. It would be very distressing to learn that arithmetic for large integers didn't work the way I assumed it did.

But in math, the intuition precedes the emotional significance. I don't start out being emotionally attached to a certain answer. Rather, I start out emotionally neutral about the question, I form an intuition about the answer, and then I am emotionally attached to being right.

So, the emotional significance can't be used to explain where the intuition came from. In the case of math, the universality of the intuitions can be explained by our common biological and cultural heritage, and by our common experience with how the enumeration of things works.

In the case of time, we have the same biological and cultural heritage, and we have the same experience with time itself, but we arrive at different intuitions about the relationship between time and ontology. This is what I find puzzling.

Different perception can easily lead to different intuitions.

What are the different perceptions that would explain the different intuitions about whether the future exists?

What are the different perceptions that would explain the different intuitions about whether the future exists?

You don't have a qualia for "becoming" therefore it's no important concept for you. Other people perceive a qualia for that concept.

I'm not 100% sure on that but I know that it's a common stumbling block when talking about the experience of being. Some people do have a qualia for that others don't.

In the case of time, we have the same biological and cultural heritage, and we have the same experience with time itself

I don't think that's the case. Typical mind fallacy makes you believe that other people have the same experience with time itself.

If I would guess than I would think that people who are strongly associated with their bodies are more likely to prefer A-theory while nerds without a relationship to their bodies prefer B-theory.

For that matter I personally don't feel a strong preference for either of the two.

When reading the first paragraph I stopped to think what my intuition about 'orderings of events in time' is. Before being primed by actual proposals (I luckily didn't know A vs. B beforehand and the naming doesn't give anything away). I thought about some events today and yesterday, their ordering and was mindful of how I phrased it and the tempos used. I didn't came to any clear theory of time this way.

To be specific I used phrases like "yesterday I did A and then I did B", "today I first did C and now do D", "later I will do E and then I will do F". During this mental speech I observed it and noticed that almost always two events are put in an X-before-Y or X-after-Y relation.

Then I went back to the wiki-article and read is sentence by sentence to avoid revealing more than absolutely needed to arrive at a forking of my mental model in two by the differentiations provided.

The result? I didn't see any contradiction between both theories and actually don't find any more compelling. Rather they provide different views on the phenomenon and perception of time. Both aspects were present in my model and mental process.

Maybe this view results from the process applied. Maybe it is because my mental model was rich enough initially. And maybe it is as in calefs comment that people with a computational background are used to dealing with both views.

Thanks for this data point.

In the post, I unthinkingly used "A-theory" and "B-theory" as code for "presentism" and "eternalism". I'd be curious to know how you react to the positions in these articles.

In kind of the same way as calef again: It is a question of definitions or what is meant by 'exist'. A psychological artifact or a reality modelling artifact. There is not really a contradiction. I think philosophy sometimes beats these things to death. They should rather right these wrong questions.

I dislike how people call this vague A- (or B-) intuition a theory, given how it is untestable even in principle. It's no more a "theory" than counting the proverbial angels on the head of a pin. The term "true" does not apply in this case.

Except it is testable, I think. If the A-theory of time is true, we would expect our best theory of space-time to contain an objectively definable notion of "present". However, our best theory of space-time contains no such notion, and in fact actively militates against it. It is, of course, possible to posit an undetectable preferred foliation of space-time or some such, but this just shows that you have to complicate your physical theory in order to sustain A-theory.* Plain relativity, interpeted naturally, is simply incompatible with it. So the experimental success of the general theory of relativity is strong evidence against the A-theory.

In addition, the fact that our experience of the passage of time can be adequately explained within B-theory in terms of the Second Law of Thermodynamics means that pretty much the only argument for A-theory (the supposed inability of B-theory to account for our experience of time) fails. So A-theory is a theory that requires us to complicate our best physical understanding of the world for no perceivable explanatory benefit. That is a bad theory in scientific, not just philosophical, terms.

* I see this move as a slightly more respectable version of protecting biblical creationism from empirical refutation by saying that God created the universe 6000 years ago but made it look exactly as if it was billions of years old.

Except it is testable, I think. If the A-theory of time is true, we would expect our best theory of space-time to contain an objectively definable notion of "present". However, our best theory of space-time contains no such notion, and in fact actively militates against it.

It is true that the original formulation of GR is covariant, i.e. has no time evolution built in, only a "block" spacetime manifold whose curvature is precisely its matter content. Similarly, classical EM, though originally formulated as an initial value problem, also looks better in a "timeless" form, where second derivative of the 4-vector potential is charge-current density.

It is, of course, possible to posit an undetectable preferred foliation of space-time or some such, but this just shows that you have to complicate your physical theory in order to sustain A-theory.*

I disagree. You have to recast GR into an initial value problem and then pick a foliation to model interesting physical phenomena, like stellar collapse and black hole collision. Completely independent of any underlying ontology. There is no intent to "sustain A-theory", that's just silly. You want to know how to detect the dying cry of a star torn apart by a supermassive black hole in the center of a galaxy, not whether to pick A or B from some book.

Plain relativity, interpreted naturally, is simply incompatible with it. So the experimental success of the general theory of relativity is strong evidence against the A-theory.

Are you saying that this A-theory predicts that there is a preferred foliation? By that logic, wouldn't B-theory predict that no foliation is possible at all? Or that all foliations are equal, whether they are timelike, null or spacelike? If so, the B-theory has been clearly falsified (if you can ever falsify anything in philosophy of physics).

the fact that our experience of the passage of time can be adequately explained within B-theory in terms of the Second Law of Thermodynamics

This seems like a major category error to me, mixing qualia ("experience of the passage of time") with statistical mechanics. They are about a dozen of abstraction and energy levels removed from each other. I can't take arguments like this seriously.

A-theory is a theory that requires us to complicate our best physical understanding of the world for no perceivable explanatory benefit. That is a bad theory in scientific, not just philosophical, terms.

What requires us to "complicate our best physical understanding of the world", such as recast the beautiful Einstein equation into an ugly ADM form, is the drive to explain and predict what we see or will see. The ontological narrative is a byproduct.

  • I see this move as a slightly more respectable version of protecting biblical creationism from empirical refutation by saying that God created the universe 6000 years ago but made it look exactly as if it was billions of years old.

This was almost verbatim the Hoyle's criticism of the Big Bang model, wasn't it?

Are you saying that this A-theory predicts that there is a preferred foliation?

Not to speak for pragmatist, but, yes, that is my understanding. But, importantly, the foliation isn't just preferred by some distinguishing physical characteristic (the way a preferred reference frame would be, for example). Rather, the foliation is preferred in a more ontologically fundamental sense: When one leaf exists, no other leaves of the foliation exist at all, nor do the parts of spacetime that they would "foliate". For the presentist/A-theorist, at this moment, a completely exhaustive ontology of the world contains nothing that is not in the present leaf.

By that logic, wouldn't B-theory predict that no foliation is possible at all? Or that all foliations are equal, whether they are timelike, null or spacelike? If so, the B-theory has been clearly falsified (if you can ever falsify anything in philosophy of physics).

The B-theory allows foliations to be different from one another in physically real ways. The B-theory doesn't allow that leaves of one special foliation "pass into and out of existence", which is what the presentist/A-theoretic approach requires.

(That is my understanding of what a presentist would say, anyway. But, as I said, I can't really make sense of presentism, so I might not be portraying the view accurately.)

I disagree. You have to recast GR into an initial value problem and then pick a foliation to model interesting physical phenomena, like stellar collapse and black hole collision. Completely independent of any underlying ontology. There is no intent to "sustain A-theory", that's just silly. You want to know how to detect the dying cry of a star torn apart by a supermassive black hole in the center of a galaxy, not whether to pick A or B from some book.

None of these amounts to picking a single foliation and stating, "This (and no other) is the correct foliation of space-time." A-theory requires a single privileged foliation. The fact that we often use foliations when modeling physical phenomena has nothing to do with sustaining A-theory, you're right, but I didn't say that any use of a foliation would have that role.

Are you saying that this A-theory predicts that there is a preferred foliation? By that logic, wouldn't B-theory predict that no foliation is possible at all? Or that all foliations are equal, whether they are timelike, null or spacelike?

No. The B-theory predicts that there is no single preferred foliation. That is not equivalent to saying that no foliation is possible. Nor is it equivalent to saying that all foliations are equal.

This seems like a major category error to me, mixing qualia ("experience of the passage of time") with statistical mechanics. They are about a dozen of abstraction and energy levels removed from each other.

There is, of course, a mystery about how (or even if) particular qualia are produced by physical processes. I don't claim that statistical mechanics can answer that mystery, but that is not a mystery that A-theory claims to answer, either. However, if you grant (as I think you should) that our experience of the passage of time is related to the way in which our brain performs various computations, then stat. mech. becomes immediately relevant, and isn't dozens of levels removed. There is a rich literature applying statistical mechanics to understand constraints on computational processes.

The beauty of stat. mech. methods is that they are not constrained to a particular energy level. They can be applied to understand the behavior of molecules in a gas, but also to understand the behavior of galaxies in a supercluster. In any case, my mention of stat. mech. in this context wasn't just a throwaway. Part of my dissertation was about understanding the experience of time direction (in particular, the fact that cognitive systems record memories in one temporal direction and intervene in the opposite temporal direction) in statistical mechanical terms. I'd be happy to summarize the argument if you'd like, when I have the time.

What requires us to "complicate our best physical understanding of the world", such as recast the beautiful Einstein equation into an ugly ADM form, is the drive to explain and predict what we see or will see.

As I said before, the motivations and consequences of the ADM formalism (at least when applied to obtain numerical solutions to initial value problems) are quite distinct from those of the A-theory. Now it may turn out that in our ultimate theory of quantum gravity, we do have to specify a single preferred foliation of space-time, in which case I will readily admit that this particular objection to A-theory no longer holds. But that just highlights how this debate is responsive to empirical confirmation and disconfirmation.

This was almost verbatim the Hoyle's criticism of the Big Bang model, wasn't it?

Perhaps it was, I don't know. But if it was, then he was wrong, because the criticism certainly doesn't seem to apply to the Big Bang model as we know it. Just because the criticism can be misapplied doesn't mean it's never valid.

I had to re-read this several times before I understood the point of what you were saying. It has a lot of important things missing, in particular:

Why bring time into this? Intuitions 1 and 2 collide in the same way regardless of whether the two mind-states are causally connected (e.g. I'd still feel that a sufficiently-similar-to-me simulation in some place outside my light cone is still me, somehow, even though I don't have any of his qualia).

How does B-theory solve this problem?

I'm not sure why, but I use A-series for epistemology and B-series for metaphysics. That's probably deeply wrong somehow, but it fits with a strong belief in the fallibility of both memory and prediction.

If time were topologically a loop, wouldn't both A and B theories be inaccurate representations of time?

They'd still work locally, but not globally.

I don't think B-theory, broadly construed, would be incompatible with that. B-theory is basically just treating space-time as an integrated entity, rather than having radically different ontologies for space and time. It doesn't require time to be partially ordered, any more than it requires spatial directions to be partially ordered.

There are spacetimes, most notably the Godel Universe, where time is both a loop and not a loop. Some time directions (from the same spatial point) loop around, others go on forever, never getting close to the point of origin. You can still say, however, that it is compatible with the timeless B-like approach. There is no way to construct this spacetime by taking an A-like fixed spatial slice and evolving it forward in time using the Einstein equations. (There is a loophole, however, where one can lift the Godel universe from flat space using a twisted timelike fiber, but that's a different story.)

I haven't actually spoken to a lot of people about their philosophy of time, but my best guess for why one would develop a strong emotion on the topic is that when one first encounters the distinction, one identifies one of the theories as "common sense" and the other as "counterintuitive philosophy", and they have a strong emotional disposition one way or the other regarding that dichotomy.

(I'm not sure there's a general answer to which theory is common sense, but I think it's likely one would make an identification one way or the other)